Should wealthy nations be required to share their wealth with poorer nations by providing them with things such as food and education?

In
this
day and age, there has been an increase in the income gap between the wealthy and the poor, more developed
nations
become richer and the less developed
nations
become poorer. In light of
this
phenomenon, I will be discussing the debatable view on whether well-off states should or should not share their money.
To begin
with, more economically developed counties should dividend their wealth as they are responsible for the obstacles to development for the poorer
nations
. Less economically developed countries' development is hugely restricted due to the rising awareness of environmental protection. Yet, during the days when the current MEDCs were still LEDCs, there were no laws on-site to prohibit them from cutting down trees
nor
Correct word choice
or
show examples
burning coal.
This
suggests the affluent should help the less privileged as the negative consequences created by them caused difficulties for the poorer
nations
to expand.
On the other hand
, some argue that providing aid to less developed counties increases the risk of countries being dependent on it. One example would be more than 50% of the GDP of some LECDs is derived from the aid provided by affluent counties.
This
demonstrates how the provision of money to the poorer populations could bring overdependency.
Furthermore
, the corruption within some poor countries suggests, that even if the wealthy population part of their wealth, most of the money would not go into the construction of infrastructure but into high echelons' hands. After weighing both factors, I reckon wealthy
nations
should not share their wealth as it would not benefit citizens in poorer states but benefit the echelons.
Submitted by mlukmd809 on

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